AHIMA CCS Practice Test Questions ( Updated) – Real Exam Questions & Dumps PDF
Preparing for the AHIMA CCS Certified Coding Specialist (CCS) (CCS) exam can be challenging without the right resources. That’s why our CCS practice test questions and updated dumps PDF are designed to help you pass with confidence.
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AHIMA CCS Sample Questions – Free Practice Test & Real Exam Prep
Question #1
A new patient is seen in a family practice clinic. During the visit, he reports asymptomatic coronary artery
disease that was previously diagnosed in another state. What information from his external records would
help in selecting the most specific code for this condition?
A: The age at which he was diagnosed
B: History of tobacco use
C: Presence of hyperlipidemia
D: Prior coronary artery bypass grafting
Answer: D Explanation: The relevant ICD-10 code can be found by looking up Disease, Coronary, which directs to Disease, Heart,
Ischemic, Atherosclerotic and to the default code 125.10. In the Tabular List, this code refers to
atherosclerosis of the native coronary arteries. A more specific code could be obtained by inquiring about
any previous coronary artery bypass grafting. Hyperlipidemia and history of tobacco use should also be
coded if present, but they do not affect code selection for coronary artery disease, and neither does the
patient's age at diagnosis.
Question #2
Which one of these is NOT likely to result from the misuse of EHR templates?
A: Inclusion of a different provider's signature
B: Overdocumentation
C: Failure to accurately record the patient's condition
D: Documentation that does not accurately reflect the services provided
Answer: A Explanation: The use of templates to facilitate efficient documentation is unlikely to cause a note to be signed by a
provider other than the one involved in that episode of care. Template use may result in
overdocumentation, that is, extensive documentation that does not accurately reflect the scope or specifics
of an encounter. If the template is not appropriately modified, it may not reflect the condition or services
relevant to that particular patient on a specific date of service.
Question #3
A 55-year-old man is admitted from the ED for acute ischemic stroke. He did not receive tissue
plasminogen activator. Select the condition that would increase the MS-DRG if present on admission.
A: Chronic pain syndrome
B: Bacterial meningitis
C: Mixed hyperlipidemia
D: Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Answer: B Explanation: Acute ischemic stroke is found in the ICD-10-CM by searching the Alphabetic Index for Stroke (Ischemic),
which leads us to code 163.9 in the Tabular List. Without CC or MCC, the corresponding
MS-DRG would be 066 (with a relative weight of 0.6875). With MCC, the MS-DRG would be 064 (with a
relative weight of 2.0030). Among the selections given, bacterial meningitis (code G00.9) is the only MCC.
Question #4
What is the correct coding for a patient with early-onset Alzheimer's disease and agitation?
A: F02.811, G30.0, because in the ICD-10 Alphabetic Index dementia is the primary code
B: G30.0 only, because in the ICD-10 Alphabetic Index dementia is an alternative code
C: G30.0 only, because in the ICD-10 Alphabetic Index dementia is a synonym
D: G30.0, F02.811, because in the ICD-10 Alphabetic Index dementia is the manifestation
Answer: D Explanation:
In the ICD-10 Alphabetic Index, Alzheimers (the underlying condition) is listed first, followed by dementia
(the manifestation) in brackets. According to ICD-10 guidelines, the code in brackets is always sequenced
second because it is a manifestation (IA13).
Question #5
Which program uses a score based on patient safety/adverse events and hospital- acquired infections, to
reduce payments for hospital claims?
A: AHRQ Quality Indicator Program
B: Medicare's HAC Reduction Program
C: Medicare's Hospital Readmissions Reduction Program
D: MACRA
Answer: B Explanation: Medicare's HAC Reduction Program uses a hospital's total HAC score to determine payment reductions for
hospital claims. This score is calculated based on patient safety events, adverse events, and
hospital-acquired infections. The AHRQ Quality Indicator Program helps decision- makers in healthcare
identify and track potential quality concerns identified in their data. Medicare's Hospital Readmissions
Reduction Program is geared toward reducing avoidable hospital readmissions. MACRA is the acronym for
the Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015.
Question #6
Anemia is documented as the indication for a colonoscopy. Which one of the following would found in a
compliant query?
A: Unspecified anemia is not a covered indication, but the laboratory results indicate iron deficiency anemia.
B: Based on the clinical indicators, please clarify the type(s) and/or cause(s) of anemia that prompted the procedure.
C: Unspecified anemia is not a covered indication. Please document an alternative indication.
D: To avoid claim denial, please amend the diagnosis to "iron deficiency anemia" as evidenced by the clinical criteria.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To be compliant, a query must not use language that leads the physician to select a preferred diagnosis.
Additionally, it is inappropriate to include information regarding the financial impact of a particular response.
Only option B meets both of these criteria.
Question #7
A patient undergoes emergency exploratory laparotomy for a presumed intestinal obstruction. In the
operative note, her surgeon documents peritoneal metastases, which were biopsied, and ascitic fluid, which
was sent for analysis. Two days later, the attending physician enters a diagnosis of epithelial ovarian
cancer with peritoneal metastases. What isthe best supporting documentation for this new diagnosis?
A: A pathology' report on the biopsies taken.
B: A culture report on the ascitic fluid sampled.
C: A query to the attending physician since he may have received verbal notification of a result
D: A query to the surgeon to verify if an ovarian mass was found.
Answer: A
Explanation: A pathology report would be the best supporting documentation to seek because this diagnosis is very
specific as to the type of ovarian cancer. Cytology of the ascitic fluid might reveal cancer cells, but a culture
would only detect infectious organisms. A physician query would be premature at this stage, but if one were
to be done, it should only be directed to the provider whose diagnosis is being addressed in the query. If
the attending physician had received verbal notification of the cancer, there would be a pathology report
with a note documenting the date and time of the notification.
Question #8
Which one of these is a major comorbid condition only if the patient is discharged alive?
A: Congestive heart failure
B: End-stage renal disease
C: Carcinomatosis
D: Ventricular fibrillation
Answer: D Explanation:
Ventricular fibrillation is listed in part 2 of the CC/MCC Exclusion List and can only be used as a CC or an
MCC if the patient is discharged alive. End-stage renal disease and carcinomatosis are both classified as
MCCs but are not on part 2 of the Exclusion List. Congestive heart failure is not classed as a CC/MCC.
Question #9
Following coronary angiography, a patient admitted for precordial chest pain is found to have coronary
artery disease. A coronary artery bypass is performed using a single arterial graft. Which one of the
following statements is true about sequencing these procedures?
A: Coronary angiography should be sequenced first since it was performed for chest pain.
B: Coronary artery bypass should be sequenced first because it is the definitive management for coronary artery disease.
C: Only coronary artery bypass should be billed because it is the most extensive procedure.
D: The order of CPT codes does not matter in this case.
Answer: B Explanation: According to the ICD-10-PCS guidelines, when more than one procedure is performed, the one performed
for definitive treatment most related to the principal diagnosis is sequenced as the principal procedure.
Coronary angiography is a diagnostic procedure and not a definitive treatment: therefore, it should be
sequenced second and not omitted.
Question #10
Which one of the following is FAISE about clinical validation?
A: Payers may have their own clinical validation criteria.
B: Every diagnosis has a universally accepted definition.
C: The clinical validation process can be subjective sometimes, making appeals difficult
D: Clinical validation reviews are not always straightforward.
Answer: B Explanation:
Not all conditions have universally accepted definitions in the medical community. Payers and various
healthcare organizations can have their own criteria. The process is not always straightforward and may be
subjective, making some denials harder to appeal.
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