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Cisco 200-201 Exam Questions

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Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals

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Cisco 200-201 Sample Questions – Free Practice Test & Real Exam Prep

Question #1

A security engineer must protect the company from known issues that trigger adware.Recently new incident has been raised that could harm the system. Which securityconcepts are present in this scenario?

  • A. exploit and patching  
  • B. risk and evidence  
  • C. analysis and remediation  
  • D. vulnerability and threat  
Answer: D
Explanation:
The security scenario involves protecting the company from known issues that
trigger adware and addressing a recent incident that could harm the system.
This scenario involves identifying vulnerabilities (weaknesses in the system that
can be exploited) and threats (potential harm that can exploit these vulnerabilities).
A vulnerability is an inherent flaw in the system, while a threat is an event or
condition that has the potential to exploit the vulnerability.
The security engineer needs to assess both the vulnerabilities present and the
threats that could exploit these vulnerabilities to implement effective protection
measures.
References
Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals
Concepts of Vulnerability and Threat in Cybersecurity
Best Practices in Vulnerability Management

Question #2

Which two pieces of information are collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choosetwo.)

  • A. UDP port to which the traffic is destined  
  • B. TCP port from which the traffic was sourced  
  • C. source IP address of the packet  
  • D. destination IP address of the packet  
  • E. UDP port from which the traffic is sourced  
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The IPv4 protocol header contains various fields that provide essential
information for routing and delivery of packets across an IP network. Two key pieces of
information collected from the IPv4 header are the source IP address and the destination
IP address of the packet. These addresses are crucial for identifying where a packet is
coming from and where it is intended to go12.
References :=
The structure and fields of the IPv4 header, including the source and
destination IP addresses, are explained in detail in networking resources and
documentation, such as the ComputerNetworkingNotes tutorial on IPv4 Header Structure1,
and the Engineering LibreTexts on the IPv4 Header2. 
Question #3

How does certificate authority impact a security system? 

  • A. It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate  
  • B. It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate  
  • C. It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate  
  • D. It validates client identity when communicating with the server  
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for issuing digital certificates to
validate the identity of the certificate holder andprovide a means to establish secure
communications over networks like the Internet.
References :=
Cisco Cybersecurity Source
Documents 
Question #4

An organization that develops high-end technology is going through an internal audit Theorganization uses two databases The main database stores patent information and asecondary database stores employee names and contact information A compliance team isasked to analyze the infrastructure and identify protected data Which two types ofprotected data should be identified? (Choose two)

  • A. Personally Identifiable Information (Pll)  
  • B. Payment Card Industry (PCI)  
  • C. Protected Hearth Information (PHI)  
  • D. Intellectual Property (IP)  
  • E. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)  
Answer: A,D
Explanation: 
Protected data refers to any information that is legally guarded or sensitive
due to its nature. In the context of the organization described, the main database contains
Intellectual Property (IP), which includes patents that are legally protected forms of
inventions and designs. The secondary database holds Personally Identifiable
Information (PII), which comprises data that can be used to identify individuals, such as
names and contact details. Both IP and PII are considered protected data and should be
identified during an internal audit to ensure they are handled according to legal and
regulatory standards. References: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Fundamentals (CBROPS)

Question #5

What is a difference between an inline and a tap mode traffic monitoring? 

  • A. Inline monitors traffic without examining other devices, while a tap mode tags traffic andexamines the data from monitoring devices.
  • B. Tap mode monitors traffic direction, while inline mode keeps packet data as it passes through the monitoring devices. 
  • C. Tap mode monitors packets and their content with the highest speed, while the inlinemode draws a packet path for analysis
  • D. Inline mode monitors traffic path, examining any traffic at a wire speed, while a tap mode monitors traffic as it crosses the network. 
Answer: D
Explanation: 
Inline mode is used for monitoring the traffic path and can examine any
traffic at wire speed. This means that it can analyze data packets as they pass through in
real-time. On the other hand, tap mode is used for monitoring traffic as it traverses across
the network but does not have the capability to examine data at wire speed like inline
mode. References: The information can be referenced from Cisco’s official documentation
on cybersecurity operations and fundamentals.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/650/configuration/guid
e/fpmc-config-guidev65/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

Question #6

How is attacking a vulnerability categorized? 

  • A. action on objectives  
  • B. delivery  
  • C. exploitation  
  • D. installation  
Answer: C
Explanation: 
Attacking a vulnerability is categorized as exploitation, which is the third
phase of the cyberattack lifecycle. Exploitation is the process of taking advantage of a
vulnerability in a system, application, or network to gain access, escalate privileges, or
execute commands. Action on objectives, delivery, and installation are other phases of the
cyberattack lifecycle, but they do not involve attacking a vulnerability. Action on objectives
is the final phase, where the attacker achieves their goal, such as stealing data, disrupting
services, or destroying assets. Delivery is the second phase, where the attacker delivers
the malicious payload, such as malware, phishing email, or malicious link, to the target.
Installation is the fourth phase, where the attacker installs the malicious payload on the
compromised system or network to maintain persistence or spread
laterally. 
References: 
What is a Cyberattack? | IBM, Recognizing the seven stages of a
cyber-attack - DNV
Question #7

An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurredon the network. What is the impact of this traffic?

  • A. ransomware communicating after infection  
  • B. users downloading copyrighted content  
  • C. data exfiltration  
  • D. user circumvention of the firewall  
Answer: C
Explanation:
Traffic with a known TOR exit node is often associated with data exfiltration, where
sensitive information is transferred from within the network to an external location. TOR
networks are used to anonymize the traffic, making it difficult to trace back to the
source.
References :=
Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals - Module 2: Security
Monitoring 
Question #8

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of thecompany's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set ofapplications on all PCs.Which technology should be used to accomplish this task? 

  • A. application whitelisting/blacklisting  
  • B. network NGFW  
  • C. host-based IDS  
  • D. antivirus/antispyware software  
Answer: A
Explanation: 
Application whitelisting/blacklisting is a technology used to control which
applications are allowed to execute on a company’s corporate PCs. Whitelisting allows only
approved applications to run, while blacklisting prevents specific applications from running.
This approach is effective for managing application usage across an enterprise. 
Question #9

What is an advantage of symmetric over asymmetric encryption? 

  • A. A key is generated on demand according to data type.  
  • B. A one-time encryption key is generated for data transmission  
  • C. It is suited for transmitting large amounts of data.  
  • D. It is a faster encryption mechanism for sessions  
Answer: D
Explanation: 
Symmetric encryption is a type of encryption that uses the same key to
encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption is a type of encryption that uses a pair of
keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be used to encrypt data, but only
the private key can decrypt it, and vice versa. An advantage of symmetric encryption over
asymmetric encryption is that it is faster and more efficient for encrypting large amounts of
data, such as in sessions or bulk transfers. Asymmetric encryption is slower and more
computationally intensive, but it is more secure and suitable for key exchange or digital
signatures. 
References := 
Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals, Module 2:
Security Monitoring, Lesson 2.3: Cryptography and PKI, Topic 2.3.1: Cryptography 
Question #10

The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targeting the organization. Theteam's approach is to push back the cyber kill chain and mitigate ongoing incidents. Atwhich phase of the cyber kill chain should the security team mitigate this type of attack?

  • A. actions  
  • B. delivery  
  • C. reconnaissance  
  • D. installation  
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the context of the cyber kill chain model, spam campaigns fall under the
“delivery” phase where attackers deliver malicious payloads via email or other means to
target systems or networks. References: Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals,
Module 1: Security Concepts, Lesson 1.4: Security Monitoring, Topic 1.4.2: The Cyber Kill
Chain Model 
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