CompTIA SK0-005 Practice Test Questions ( Updated) – Real Exam Questions & Dumps PDF
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CompTIA SK0-005 Sample Questions – Free Practice Test & Real Exam Prep
Question #1
A systems administrator is performing a routine update to a server. The administrator applies theupdate, restarts the server, and then conducts routine testing that reveals the critical functionalityprovided by the server is unavailable. Event logs indicate a core service is failing to start. The serviceis configured to start automatically, and rolling back the update does not correct the issue. Which ofthe following is most likely causing the service failure?
A. The server requires another reboot to complete the rollback.
B. The administrator is not authorized to run the service.
C. The server requires further updates of other software components.
D. The account used to run the service has expired.
Answer: C
Explanation:
After an update, if a core service fails to start, potential causes include dependencies, authentication,
or incomplete updates:
The server requires another reboot to complete the rollback (A): Some updates require multiple
reboots, but if rolling back did not resolve the issue, a missing dependency is more likely.
The administrator is not authorized to run the service (B): If the administrator previously had access
and the update broke the service, it is likely due to software conflicts rather than permissions.
The server requires further updates of other software components (C): Many services rely on
dependent libraries, drivers, or patches. If an update replaces or removes a necessary component,
the service may fail until additional updates are applied.
The account used to run the service has expired (D): Expired accounts usually cause authentication
failures but not outright service crashes unless explicitly required for the update process.
Since rolling back the update did not fix the issue, the most likely reason is that additional updates or
dependencies are missing.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 8 “ System Maintenance and
Troubleshooting
Question #2
A database developer recently requested a 4TB SATA drive utilizing spinning disks be added to anexisting system for a new, heavily used database. The storage administrator turned down the requestafter reviewing it. Which of the following is the most likely reason the administrator did that?
A. The drive is not capable of deduplication.
B. The drive would have slow I/O performance.
C. The drive cannot use NTFS.
D. The drive is not compatible with the server OS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A heavily used database requires high I/O (Input/Output) performance for frequent transactions.
Considering the storage options:
The drive is not capable of deduplication (A): Deduplication is useful for saving storage space, but it is
not a primary concern for database performance.
The drive would have slow I/O performance (B): Traditional spinning disk SATA drives have
significantly lower IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) compared to SSDs or enterprise-level
NVMe storage. A high-traffic database benefits from low-latency, high-throughput storage, which
SATA HDDs do not provide.
The drive cannot use NTFS (C): SATA drives can use NTFS, so this is incorrect.
The drive is not compatible with the server OS (D): Most modern operating systems support SATA
drives.
Because SATA spinning disks cannot handle high transaction loads efficiently, the administrator likely
An administrator is troubleshooting a performance issue with an application. The applicationperforms many small reads and writes in its operation. The administrator determines that theunderlying storage is currently configured to use a general-purpose array with RAID 5. Which of thefollowing should the administrator consider doing in order to offer higher application performanceyet still retain data protection?
A. Move the application to an array using RAID 0.
B. Move the application to an array using RAID 1.
C. Move the application to an array using RAID 6.
D. Move the application to an array using RAID 10.
Answer: D
Explanation:
RAID 5 is efficient for read-heavy workloads but is not well-suited for applications that perform many
small reads and writes due to the overhead of parity calculations. To improve performance while
maintaining redundancy:
RAID 0 (A): This would improve performance but does not offer any data protection, making it
unsuitable.
RAID 1 (B): Provides redundancy but does not enhance write performance significantly.
RAID 6 (C): Offers better fault tolerance than RAID 5 but suffers from even higher write penalties due
to double parity.
RAID 10 (D): Combines mirroring (RAID 1) and striping (RAID 0), significantly improving both read and
write performance while ensuring redundancy. This makes it the best choice for applications with
high-frequency small reads/writes.
Since the administrator needs higher performance and data protection, RAID 10 is the best choice.
Which of the following would protect data in transit?
A. SSL/TLS
B. SHA-512
C. MD5
D. 3DES
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data in transit refers to data being transmitted over a network, and protecting it requires encryption:
SSL/TLS (A): Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are encryption protocols
designed specifically to protect data in transit by encrypting communication between endpoints. This
is the correct answer.
SHA-512 (B): Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) is a hashing algorithm, not an encryption method. It is
used for integrity verification rather than securing data in transit.
MD5 (C): Message Digest Algorithm 5 (MD5) is another hashing function, primarily used for
checksums and integrity checks, not for encrypting transmitted data.
3DES (D): Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm, but it is used
for data at rest rather than data in transit.
Since the question specifically asks about protecting data in transit, SSL/TLS is the correct answer.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 9 “ Security and Encryption
Question #5
A server in the data center reportedly has a BSOD and is not responding. The server needs to berebooted. Which of the following is the best method to reboot the server remotely?
A. Crash cart
B. KVM
C. IRMI
D. shutdown -r
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a server crashes with a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) and is not responding, the most effective
way to reboot it remotely must be chosen:
Crash cart (A): A crash cart is a physical device used for troubleshooting at the server location. Since
the administrator wants a remote reboot, this is not suitable.
KVM (B): A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch allows remote management of multiple servers
but does not inherently provide reboot capabilities.
IRMI (C) - Intelligent Remote Management Interface: This is the best option. Many enterprise servers
have Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) or Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) management
tools that allow remote power control, including forced reboots.
shutdown -r (D): This command is used to restart a server via an operating system command-line
interface. However, since the server is not responding, this command cannot be executed.
Since the server is unresponsive, the best method is to use the remote management interface
(IRMI/IPMI/iLO) to force a reboot.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 7 “ Remote Server Management
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