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CompTIA SK0-005 Sample Questions – Free Practice Test & Real Exam Prep
Question #1
A systems administrator is performing a routine update to a server. The administrator applies theupdate, restarts the server, and then conducts routine testing that reveals the critical functionalityprovided by the server is unavailable. Event logs indicate a core service is failing to start. The serviceis configured to start automatically, and rolling back the update does not correct the issue. Which ofthe following is most likely causing the service failure?
A. The server requires another reboot to complete the rollback.
B. The administrator is not authorized to run the service.
C. The server requires further updates of other software components.
D. The account used to run the service has expired.
Answer: C
Explanation:
After an update, if a core service fails to start, potential causes include dependencies, authentication,
or incomplete updates:
The server requires another reboot to complete the rollback (A): Some updates require multiple
reboots, but if rolling back did not resolve the issue, a missing dependency is more likely.
The administrator is not authorized to run the service (B): If the administrator previously had access
and the update broke the service, it is likely due to software conflicts rather than permissions.
The server requires further updates of other software components (C): Many services rely on
dependent libraries, drivers, or patches. If an update replaces or removes a necessary component,
the service may fail until additional updates are applied.
The account used to run the service has expired (D): Expired accounts usually cause authentication
failures but not outright service crashes unless explicitly required for the update process.
Since rolling back the update did not fix the issue, the most likely reason is that additional updates or
dependencies are missing.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 8 “ System Maintenance and
Troubleshooting
Question #2
A database developer recently requested a 4TB SATA drive utilizing spinning disks be added to anexisting system for a new, heavily used database. The storage administrator turned down the requestafter reviewing it. Which of the following is the most likely reason the administrator did that?
A. The drive is not capable of deduplication.
B. The drive would have slow I/O performance.
C. The drive cannot use NTFS.
D. The drive is not compatible with the server OS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A heavily used database requires high I/O (Input/Output) performance for frequent transactions.
Considering the storage options:
The drive is not capable of deduplication (A): Deduplication is useful for saving storage space, but it is
not a primary concern for database performance.
The drive would have slow I/O performance (B): Traditional spinning disk SATA drives have
significantly lower IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) compared to SSDs or enterprise-level
NVMe storage. A high-traffic database benefits from low-latency, high-throughput storage, which
SATA HDDs do not provide.
The drive cannot use NTFS (C): SATA drives can use NTFS, so this is incorrect.
The drive is not compatible with the server OS (D): Most modern operating systems support SATA
drives.
Because SATA spinning disks cannot handle high transaction loads efficiently, the administrator likely
An administrator is troubleshooting a performance issue with an application. The applicationperforms many small reads and writes in its operation. The administrator determines that theunderlying storage is currently configured to use a general-purpose array with RAID 5. Which of thefollowing should the administrator consider doing in order to offer higher application performanceyet still retain data protection?
A. Move the application to an array using RAID 0.
B. Move the application to an array using RAID 1.
C. Move the application to an array using RAID 6.
D. Move the application to an array using RAID 10.
Answer: D
Explanation:
RAID 5 is efficient for read-heavy workloads but is not well-suited for applications that perform many
small reads and writes due to the overhead of parity calculations. To improve performance while
maintaining redundancy:
RAID 0 (A): This would improve performance but does not offer any data protection, making it
unsuitable.
RAID 1 (B): Provides redundancy but does not enhance write performance significantly.
RAID 6 (C): Offers better fault tolerance than RAID 5 but suffers from even higher write penalties due
to double parity.
RAID 10 (D): Combines mirroring (RAID 1) and striping (RAID 0), significantly improving both read and
write performance while ensuring redundancy. This makes it the best choice for applications with
high-frequency small reads/writes.
Since the administrator needs higher performance and data protection, RAID 10 is the best choice.
Which of the following would protect data in transit?
A. SSL/TLS
B. SHA-512
C. MD5
D. 3DES
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data in transit refers to data being transmitted over a network, and protecting it requires encryption:
SSL/TLS (A): Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are encryption protocols
designed specifically to protect data in transit by encrypting communication between endpoints. This
is the correct answer.
SHA-512 (B): Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) is a hashing algorithm, not an encryption method. It is
used for integrity verification rather than securing data in transit.
MD5 (C): Message Digest Algorithm 5 (MD5) is another hashing function, primarily used for
checksums and integrity checks, not for encrypting transmitted data.
3DES (D): Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm, but it is used
for data at rest rather than data in transit.
Since the question specifically asks about protecting data in transit, SSL/TLS is the correct answer.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 9 “ Security and Encryption
Question #5
A server in the data center reportedly has a BSOD and is not responding. The server needs to berebooted. Which of the following is the best method to reboot the server remotely?
A. Crash cart
B. KVM
C. IRMI
D. shutdown -r
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a server crashes with a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) and is not responding, the most effective
way to reboot it remotely must be chosen:
Crash cart (A): A crash cart is a physical device used for troubleshooting at the server location. Since
the administrator wants a remote reboot, this is not suitable.
KVM (B): A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch allows remote management of multiple servers
but does not inherently provide reboot capabilities.
IRMI (C) - Intelligent Remote Management Interface: This is the best option. Many enterprise servers
have Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) or Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) management
tools that allow remote power control, including forced reboots.
shutdown -r (D): This command is used to restart a server via an operating system command-line
interface. However, since the server is not responding, this command cannot be executed.
Since the server is unresponsive, the best method is to use the remote management interface
(IRMI/IPMI/iLO) to force a reboot.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 7 “ Remote Server Management
Question #6
A server recently started sending error messages about running out of memory while in use. After amaintenance period during which more memory was added, the server is still unable to consistentlyremain powered on. Which of the following should the technician check first?
A. Memory compatibility
B. Memory speed
C. Memory slots
D. Boot order
Answer: A
Explanation:
When troubleshooting memory-related errors, it's essential to consider several key factors:
Memory Compatibility: Memory modules must match the specifications supported by the
motherboard (e.g., DDR4 vs. DDR5, ECC vs. non-ECC, buffered vs. unbuffered). Using incompatible
RAM can cause boot failures, crashes, or instability.
Memory Speed: While RAM speed mismatches can affect performance, they typically do not cause a
server to fail to power on. Most systems automatically adjust to the slowest module.
Memory Slots: Incorrect installation or damaged slots could be an issue, but the priority is to check
compatibility first.
Boot Order: This setting controls the sequence in which devices boot the OS, which is unrelated to
memory-related power issues.
Since the server remains unstable after adding memory, the most likely issue is an incompatibility
with the motherboard. The first step is to verify whether the newly installed RAM meets the servers
hardware requirements.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 4 “ Server Components and
Troubleshootin
Question #7
A storage administrator is configuring a new array to provide storage to a virtual cluster. The arrayhas a built-in backup agent to allow data that is stored on the array to be backed up. The storageadministrator wants the virtual cluster to use a file-based storage protocol so the backup agent canjust back up the files that change and not the whole data store. Which of the following storageprotocols should the administrator use?
A. iSCSI
B. FC
C. FCoE
D. NFS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Different storage protocols operate at different levels (file-based vs. block-based):
iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Systems Interface) is a block-level protocol, meaning that the storage
appears as raw disk space to the operating system. Backups would require copying entire blocks,
rather than specific files.
FC (Fibre Channel) is another block-level protocol used in high-performance SANs. It does not
support file-based storage natively.
FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) extends FC over Ethernet but still functions as a block-based
storage solution.
NFS (Network File System) is a file-based storage protocol, making it the best option. It allows direct
access to files, which enables backup software to back up only modified files instead of the entire
block device.
Since the administrator requires a file-based storage protocol to ensure efficient incremental
A technician is configuring a server with eight available drive bays. The technician wants acombination of the most redundancy and the maximum available storage. Which of the followingRAID levels should the technician use?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
When selecting a RAID level, both redundancy and storage efficiency must be considered:
RAID 1 mirrors data, providing high redundancy but reducing available storage to 50%. With eight
drives, only four drives' worth of space would be available.
RAID 5 uses striping with distributed parity. It provides good storage efficiency (n-1) but can only
tolerate one drive failure.
RAID 6 is similar to RAID 5 but uses dual parity, allowing two drives to fail while still maintaining data
integrity. However, it reduces available storage to (n-2).
RAID 10 (also known as RAID 1+0) combines mirroring and striping. It provides excellent redundancy
and performance, allowing multiple drive failures as long as they aren't in the same mirrored pair.
Storage efficiency is 50%, but the redundancy and performance benefits outweigh this trade-off
in high-availability environments.
Since the technician requires both maximum redundancy and high available storage, RAID 10 is the
best choice.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 5 “ Storage Solutions and RAID
Question #9
A systems administrator noticed a new network card is not being recognized by the operatingsystem. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The network cable is unplugged.
B. The driver is not loaded.
C. The IP settings are incorrect.
D. PXE boot is enabled.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a newly installed network card is not being recognized by the operating system, the most likely
cause is that the necessary driver is not installed or loaded. Device drivers act as intermediaries
between the hardware and the operating system. Without the correct driver, the OS cannot
communicate with or properly use the network card.
Other Options:
A . The network cable is unplugged: This would prevent network connectivity, but the OS would still
recognize the network card itself.
C . The IP settings are incorrect: Incorrect IP settings can cause network issues but do not prevent the
OS from recognizing the NIC.
D . PXE boot is enabled: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows a system to boot from a
network rather than a local disk. While PXE may affect booting, it does not directly cause a NIC to be
unrecognized by the OS.
Thus, the most likely cause is that the driver for the network card is not installed or properly loaded.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): Server Hardware “ Explain server
components and their functions
Question #10
A systems administrator is selecting an authentication system for a data center. The companyssecurity policy requires that the system support MFA. Which of the following options should the administrator deploy to meet the policy requirements?
A. A retinal scan and a fingerprint reader
B. A key fob and an employee badge
C. An RFID chip and a PIN code
D. An alphanumeric, case-sensitive password with symbols
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires the use of two or more different authentication factors
to verify a users identity. The three main authentication factors are:
Something You Know “ Password, PIN, security questions
Something You Have “ Smart card, key fob, RFID chip
Something You Are “ Biometrics such as fingerprint, retina scan
Option C (RFID chip and PIN code) meets the MFA requirement
because: RFID chip (Something You Have) provides a physical security
token.
PIN code (Something You Know) adds a knowledge-based authentication factor.
Other Options:
A . Retinal scan and fingerprint reader: Both are biometric factors (Something You Are) and do not
satisfy MFA requirements, which need at least two different categories.
B . Key fob and employee badge: Both are physical items (Something You Have), failing to meet MFA
requirements.
D . An alphanumeric, case-sensitive password with symbols: This only represents Something You
Know, not MFA.
Thus, RFID chip and PIN code (Option C) provides two separate authentication factors and meets the
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