AHIMA RHIT Practice Test Questions ( Updated) – Real Exam Questions & Dumps PDF
Preparing for the AHIMA RHIT Registered Health Information Technician (RHIT) (RHIT) exam can be challenging without the right resources. That’s why our RHIT practice test questions and updated dumps PDF are designed to help you pass with confidence.
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AHIMA RHIT Sample Questions – Free Practice Test & Real Exam Prep
Question #1
Which healthcare provider is NOT able to legally diagnose and write medical orders?
A: Nurse Practitioner (NP)
B: Physician Assistant CPA)
C: Registered nurse (RN)
D: Physician (MD)
Answer: C Explanation:
While registered nurses (RNs) can carry out orders, they cannot legally diagnose or write medical orders:
however, a registered nurse with specialized education, such as a nurse practitioner (NP), can do so.
Physician assistants (PAs) may also be allowed to diagnose and write orders. In some states, NPs and PAS
require some type of physician supervision, and there may be limitations to the types of medical orders that
they can write.
Question #2
All of the following are types of interoperability standards EXCEPT:
A: RxNorm
B: HL7
C: VPN
D: NPI
Answer: C Explanation:
Interoperability standards help provide a common set of expectations and language that enable seamless
interoperability between systems and devices. There are >40 different standards development
organizations in the health IT field that support interoperable health information exchange. Examples include:
RxNorm: a terminologr standard used to normalize unique identifiers and names for clinical drugs and link
names of drugs present in various drug vocabularies in the Unified
Medical Language System (UMLS)
Health Level 7 (HL7): a messaging standard used to aid in the exchange of XML documents between
health IT systems
The National Provider ID (NPI): an identifier standard that uniquely identifies healthcare providers using a
10-digit number
Question #3
Which of these scenarios illustrates ascertainment bias?
A: Based on the answers given at the beginning of an interview, the interviewer tends to modify his or her style of questioning.
B: A study is largely based on interviews, and the subjects tend to exaggerate the severity of their ailments.
C: The subjects of a new research study have received a disproportionate amount of health treatment in the past
D: Two pathologists offer conflicting diagnoses when presented with the same set of specimens.
Answer: C Explanation:
A scenario in which the subjects of a new research study receive a disproportionate amount
of health treatment is an illustration of ascertainment bias. Ascertainment bias is the tendency of
researchers to more often select research subjects who receive a greater amount of medical
treatment. This often occurs when the volunteer population of a research study is likely to be
composed of people with special interests in physical fitness or nutrition. When the interviewer
modifies his or her style of questioning based on the answers given early in the interview, this is an
example of interviewer bias. Interviewer bias can be resolved by standardizing the question
sequence. When subjects are apt to exaggerate the severity of their ailments, this is an illustration
of prevarication bias. Prevarication bias is especially common in situations where research subjects
have some incentive to manifest a particular medical condition, such as when they are receiving
disability compensation. When two pathologists offer conflicting diagnoses of the same specimens,
this is an example of diagnosis bias. Diagnosis bias can often be resolved by preventing the
pathologists from knowing the provenance of the specimens.
Question #4
A quality improvement team wants to monitor their inpatient coding process to ensure that compliance
standards are being met. Which of the following should be regularly audited to achieve this goal?
A: CPT/HCPCS and CDT coding
B: ICD-10-CM and HCPCS coding
C: SNOMED LOINC coding
D: ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS coding
Answer: D Explanation:
The International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) and the
International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD- 10-PCS) are the
code sets used to identify inpatient diagnoses and procedures. The quality improvement team should
regularly audit these codes to ensure that compliance standards are met and that the code assignment is
accurate so that providers may receive appropriate reimbursement for services provided for each inpatient
encounter.
Question #5
An HIM director is attempting to revise a form, but the file has been locked because another individual is
currently making edits to the same form. This locking of documents is used to preserve which of the
following?
A: Audit trail
B: Version control
C: Trigger event
D: Legal hold
Answer: B Explanation:
Version control is a process used to track changes made to files or forms to avoid confusion.
A base file is often saved, and metadata are kept about the document history or changes made to it.
Locking documents is a solution to control and prevent modifications to a file and help maintain it.
Overlooking version control can result in decision makers acting on outdated, incomplete, or
inconsistent data. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure the implementation of policies and procedures
that address version control.
Question #6
Which of the following documents is used to notify a clinician when information, dictation, or signature(s)
are missing from medical documentation?
A: Deficiency slip
B: Delinquent record
C: Incident report
D: Problem list
Answer: A Explanation:
A deficiency slip is a routine document used to notify clinicians when reports, dictation, or
signature(s) are missing, and it informs the physician of what needs to be done to correct the
issue(s). These reports are often computer generated for the specific patient encounter and include
the patient's name, medical record number, and date, and they identify the individual who analyzed
the medical record.
Question #7
Which of the following graphical project management tools is used to illustrate the timeline and status of a
project and also includes who is responsible for completing each task?
A: Scrum boards
B: Gantt chart
C: PERT chart
D: Work breakdown structure
Answer: B Explanation:
Gantt charts are a type of horizontal bar chart that provide a visual representation of all
tasks related to a project and are used to document work completed over a period of time. The left side of the chart displays a list of project tasks, whereas the right side has a timeline and schedule
bars to indicate who is responsible for each project task.
Question #8
A study focuses on determining the proportion of patients with dental problems whose care plans adhere to
the American Dental Association's guidelines. Which dimension of performance is addressed by this study?
A: Efficacy
B: Appropriateness
C: Continuity
D: Efficiency
Answer: A Explanation:
The dimension of performance addressed by this study is efficacy. In the provision of health
services, efficacy is the extent to which an activity achieves its intended outcome. The study in this
question is measuring the efficacy of the guidelines provided by the American Dental Association. It
is important for a medical service authority to understand how often and how exactly its
recommendations are followed. The appropriateness of an activity is the extent to which it applies
to the clinical needs of the patient. The continuity of the study is the extent to which multiple
healthcare providers are able to coordinate and maintain consistent therapy for patients over a
long duration. Finally, the efficiency of healthcare activity is the extent to which the desired
outcomes are achieved with a minimum use of resources.
Question #9
Which MDS applies to acute care provision?
A: Minimum Data Set for Long-Term Care
B: Uniform Ambulatory Core Data Set
C: Outcome and Assessment Information Set
D: Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set
Answer: D Explanation:
The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) is the appropriate minimum data set
(MDS) for acute care provision. This data set is used by both federal and state agencies to
standardize information for inpatients. It is maintained by the National Committee on Vital Health
Statistics. The Minimum Data Set for Long-Term Care (MDS) is a more wide-ranging functional
assessment for long-term care patients. The Uniform Ambulatory Core Data Set (UACDS) provides
healthcare facilities the chance to compare data for ambulatory patients. The Outcome and
Assessment Information Set (OASIS) is the MDS for home healthcare and the primary source of
information on long-term patient outcomes.
Question #10
Which federal data set was established to enable comparison of outpatient care?
A: Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS)
B: Uniform Ambulatory Core Data Set CUACDS)
C: Minimum Data Set for Long-Term Care (MDS)
D: Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS)
Answer: B Explanation:
The Uniform Ambulatory Core Data Set (UACDS) was devised to enable comparison of data
from various patients in outpatient care. The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) is the
common set of data collected for inpatients. It is used by both federal and state agencies. The
Minimum Data Set for Long-Term Care (MDS) is a wide-ranging functional assessment for patients
in long-term care. The Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) is the primary basis for
assessing patient outcomes. It is also a general assessment for adult patients in home care.
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