CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Test Questions ( Updated) – Real Exam Questions & Dumps PDF
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CompTIA 220-1201 Sample Questions – Free Practice Test & Real Exam Prep
Question #1
Which connector is used to uplink a new ISP cable modem to its wall jack?
A. F-type
B. LC
C. RJ45
D. Lightning
Answer: A Explanation: Cable modems supplied by ISPs connect to the coaxial wall outlet using an F-type connector. CompTIA A+ specifies that F-type connectors are threaded coaxial connectors used in broadband cable internet, cable TV, and some satellite systems. They attach to RG-6 or RG-59 coaxial cable and provide a secure, shielded connection to the cable providers infrastructure. The cable modem requires this coaxial uplink to receive downstream and upstream signals from the ISP before converting them into Ethernet on the LAN side. LC (B) is for fiber optic connectors, not coaxial. RJ45 (C) is an Ethernet connector and is used on the LAN side of the modem”not on the wall uplink. Lightning (D) is an Apple connector and irrelevant to networking hardware. Thus, the correct connector for the ISP cable modem uplink is F-type.
Question #2
A user reports intermittent latency when accessing an internal website hosted at a remote office.
Which of the following should a technician do? (Select two)
A. Run ipconfig /all
B. Run ping -t
C. Run nslookup
D. Examine the physical switchport
E. Configure QoS
F. Run tracert
G. Call ISP
Answer: B, F Explanation:
When troubleshooting intermittent latency to a remote internal resource, CompTIA A+ recommends
using tools that help identify where latency occurs and whether it is consistent or fluctuating over
time. The best tools for this scenario are ping -t and tracert.
Ping -t (B) sends continuous ICMP echo requests, allowing the technician to observe packet loss,
fluctuating response times, or timeouts. This helps identify intermittent connectivity problems that
occur at specific times, such as bandwidth congestion, routing instability, or wireless interference.
Tracert (F) maps each hop between the local workstation and the remote office. If latency spikes
occur only after a particular hop”such as a VPN tunnel, MPLS gateway, or inter-office router”that
device becomes the suspected bottleneck. This makes tracert essential for isolating WAN-related
slowdowns.
Ipconfig /all (A) only provides local configuration and does not diagnose latency. Nslookup (C) is for
DNS testing”not latency to a specific internal host. Examining switchports (D) helps with local issues
but not remote latency. QoS (E) is a solution, not a troubleshooting step. Calling ISP (G) may be
premature unless testing confirms ISP-related issues.
Thus, ping -t and tracert are the correct diagnostic tools.
Question #3
A customer has bare-metal servers running Windows, Linux, and Unix. They want consolidation while
maintaining isolation and compatibility. What should the technician recommend?
A. IaaS
B. Containers
C. Type 2 hypervisor
D. VDI
Answer: A Explanation: The customer wants to consolidate multiple physical servers running different operating systems, including Windows, Linux, and Unix, while maintaining strong isolation between systems. CompTIA A+ identifies Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) as the best model for hosting fully isolated virtual machines in a cloud environment, allowing each OS to run independently on its own virtual hardware. IaaS provides virtualized computing resources”CPU, RAM, networking, and storage”while allowing the customer full control over the OS and application layer. This means Windows, Linux, and Unix VMs can coexist without compatibility concerns because each VM runs its native OS without modification. Containers (B) are unsuitable because they share the host OS kernel, meaning they cannot run different OS families. A Type 2 hypervisor (C) is workstation-based and not designed for enterprise server consolidation. VDI (D) provides user desktops, not server workload consolidation. Thus, IaaS is the correct solution for compatibility, isolation, and consolidation across multiple OS
types.
Question #4
Which RAID type offers double parity?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D Explanation: CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 6 is the RAID level that uses double parity, allowing the array to survive the failure of two drives simultaneously. RAID 6 stripes data across all disks like RAID 5 but stores two independent sets of parity information, making it far more fault-tolerant. RAID 0 has no parity and provides only performance. RAID 1 mirrors data but uses no parity. RAID 5 uses single parity and can tolerate only one disk failure. Because the question explicitly asks for double parity, only RAID 6 is correct.
Question #5
A user reports cursor issues on a company laptop. Technician finds a bulge under the trackpad. Which
component should be replaced first?
A. Motherboard
B. Heat sink
C. Battery
D. Trackpad
Answer: C Explanation: A physical bulge under the trackpad is a classic CompTIA-identified symptom of a swollen lithium-ion battery. As batteries degrade, internal gas buildup expands the casing, pushing upward on the laptop chassis”often distorting the trackpad, keyboard, or bottom shell. This can cause cursor issues, clicking problems, and safety hazards. Replacing the battery first is essential because swollen batteries can rupture, leak, or ignite. Only after the battery is removed and replaced should the technician evaluate whether the trackpad suffered permanent damage. Replacing the trackpad (D) without addressing the battery fails to correct the root cause. The motherboard (A) and heat sink (B) are unrelated to the physical bulge.
Thus, the correct first step is replacing the battery.
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